Rabu, 29 Desember 2010

CCNA Discovery 4 - Module 8 Exam Answers Version 4.0


1. Which mechanism is used to create a floating static route?
• administrative distance
• cost
• hop count
• passive interface

2. IPSec operates at which layer of the OSI model?
• application
• network
• datalink
• transport

3. Which is true regarding Frame Relay LMI?
• There are three LMI types standardized by ANSI, ITU-T, and Cisco.
• Routers at each end of a Frame Relay virtual circuit must always use the same LMI type.
• The LMI type must be manually configured.
• The only function of LMI is to verify the connection between the router and the Frame Relay switch.
4. Which statement identifies the IP address design for subinterfaces that are configured for a Frame Relay network?
• Multipoint configurations require the IP address of each subinterface on each router to be in its own subnet.
• Multipoint configurations require IP addresses for each subinterface on each router to be a part of the same subnet.
• Point-to-point configurations require IP addresses for each subinterface on each router to be a part of the same subnet.
• Point-to-point configurations do not require IP addresses on each subinterface on each router.
• Multipoint configurations do not require IP addresses on each subinterface on each router.

5. Which three algorithms can be used to encrypt user data in an IPSec VPN framework? (Choose three.)
• 3DES
• AES

• Diffie-Hellman
• DES
• ESP
• SHA

6. Which flag is set by a Frame Relay switch to inform the receiving station that congestion was experienced?
• BECN
• DE
• FECN
• FCS

7. Refer to the exhibit. The complete configuration of a Frame Relay interface on the Chicago router is shown. How does the Chicago router know which DLCI is mapped to the IP address of the remote router?
• DE
• CIR
• FECN
• Inverse ARP

8. What statement correctly defines the purpose of the split horizon rule?
• marks the route unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers
• prevents routers from advertising a network through the interface from which the update came
• prevents routers from accepting higher cost routes to networks previously marked as inaccessible before the timer expires
• limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

9. Which PVC status suggests that the router recognizes the DLCI configured on its interface as being present on the Frame Relay switch, but the PVC associated with the DLCI is not capable of end-to-end communication?
• active
• deleted
• inactive
• idle

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which router command is used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address?
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.1 110
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.1 112
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.2 110
• Miller(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.150.2 112

11. A network administrator issued the command show frame-relay pvc. The response from the router shows the status of a PVC as deleted. What is the reason for this status?
• The DLCI is using the wrong LMI type.
• The DLCI is usable but has little activity.
• The DLCI is programmed in the switch but the circuit is not usable.
• The DLCI configured on the CPE device does not match the DLCI.

12. What is one benefit of using a network simulation software package?
• The network design can be tested before it is actually implemented.
• Simulation software packages are quickly updated to support new network technologies and devices.
• Simulated devices have the same features as actual devices, allowing for detection of all potential problems.
• Software packages can simulate all possible network traffic conditions, giving an accurate prediction of network performance.

13. What are two components a network designer considers when planning a VPN? (Choose two.)
• encryption algorithm for privacy and security
• encapsulation protocol to use when creating the VPN tunnel

• switching technology to optimize VPN WAN throughput
• tunneling technology for guarding against data corruption
• routing protocol on the gateway for optimum performance

14. When identifying VPN requirements for endpoint users, what care must be taken to protect the network when remote users log in from unsecured public locations?
• Ensure that the user has VPN client software that allows access to all internal resources.
• Ensure that the VPN user traffic does not slow down internally sourced traffic on the network.
• Ensure that there are no obstacles to hamper the users from accessing all internal resources.
• Ensure that remote users can only access network resources that are appropriate to their job function.
15. Which two components are key elements when implementing a VPN? (Choose two.)
• concentration
• encryption
• prioritization
• compression
• encapsulation

16. What tool can help ease the configuration of VPN servers on routers?
• Cisco SDM
• PIX Firewall
• Cisco VPN Concentrator
• Cisco Adaptive Security Appliances

17. What is used to identify the path to the next frame-relay switch in a Frame Relay network?
• CIR
• DLCI
• FECN
• BECN

18. Which two statements are true regarding VPN security? (Choose two.)
• Users may only establish a VPN connection from secure locations and never from public areas.
• Users that connect to a network through a VPN do not have to log in to resources on the network.
• Users that connect to a network through a VPN are are considered trusted users on the network.
• Users may establish a VPN connection from unsecure locations such as airports and hotel lobbies.

• Users that connect to a network through a VPN should have access to all the resources on the network.

19. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the Orlando office to the DC office?
• MAC address of the Orlando router
• MAC address of the DC router
• 192.168.1.25
• 192.168.1.26
• DLCI 100
• DLCI 200

20. Two directly connected routers are able to ping each other through the Serial 0/0/0 interfaces. A network administrator changes the encapsulation on one router to PPP, and the other is left at the default value. What statement would appear in the output of the show interfaces command issued on one of the routers?
• Serial 0/0/0 is up, line protocol is up
• Serial 0/0/0 is down, line protocol is down
• Serial 0/0/0 is up, line protocol is down
• Serial 0/0/0 is down, line protocol is up
• Serial 0/0/0 is administratively down, line protocol is down

21. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration shown for R2?
• R2 is configured as the Frame Relay switch.
• R2 is configured as the main site in a multipoint Frame Relay WAN prototype.
• R2 is configured as the main site in a point-to-point Frame Relay WAN prototype.
• R2 is configured as a remote site in a multipoint Frame Relay WAN prototype.
• R2 is configured as a remote site in a point-to-point Frame Relay WAN prototype.

22. A company uses serial interfaces on its border router to connect to branch offices through WAN connections. The security policy dictates that the encapsulation should use PPP with authentication protocol CHAP. Which statement is true about the configuration requirement of CHAP?
• Both the username and password are case sensitive.
• Neither the username nor the password is case sensitive.
• The username is case sensitive but the password is not case sensitive.
• The password is case sensitive but the username is not case sensitive.

23. Which two statements about split tunnels are true? (Choose two.)
• Local LAN printing will use the VPN tunnel.
• The traffic load on the VPN server is increased.
• Traffic to the corporate network will be encrypted.
• There is a reduced security risk to the corporate network.
• All traffic travels across the VPN tunnel from client to server.
• Traffic to public web sites and general Internet navigation is not encrypted.

24. An IP address has been assigned to the S0/0/0 interface of a new Cisco router. The administrator wishes to quickly test basic connectivity with the serial interface of an adjoining Cisco router via the use of the default WAN protocol. Which WAN protocol will be used for this test?
• PPP
• Frame Relay
• DSL
• HDLC
• ATM

25. Which two statements about split tunnels are true? (Choose two.)
• Local LAN printing will use the VPN tunnel.
• The traffic load on the VPN server is increased.
• Traffic to the corporate network will be encrypted.
• There is a reduced security risk to the corporate network.
• All traffic travels across the VPN tunnel from client to server.
• Traffic to public web sites and general Internet navigation is not encrypted.

Kamis, 23 Desember 2010

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 4 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. In addition to the technical considerations, what other major factor is used to evaluate the success of a network installation?
• final project costs
• maintenance costs
• user satisfaction
• statistics describing the performance of network devices

2. Which two network applications are most affected by network congestion and delays? (Choose two.)
• IP telephony
• live video webcasts

• audio file downloads
• online banking services
• file archival and retrieval

3. What two Cisco tools can be used to analyze network application traffic? (Choose two.)
• NBAR
• NetFlow

• AutoQoS
• Wireshark
• Custom Queuing

4. In network design, which technology can be implemented to prioritize traffic based on its importance and technical requirements?
• STP
• QoS
• RTP
• TCP
• VPN

5. What are two characteristics of voice over IP traffic? (Choose two.)
• Voice packets tend to be small.
• Voice packets must be processed in real time.

• Voice packets can effectively use TCP reliability features.
• Voice traffic can survive packet drops and retransmission delays.
• Voice packets must be converted to analog before being sent across the IP network.
• Voice packets automatically receive a higher priority value than other types of packets.

6. What are two things that a network designer can do to determine current and anticipated network traffic flows? (Choose two.)
• Survey end users to obtain customer input.
• Upgrade the Cisco IOS software in all networking devices to optimize traffic flow.
• Limit the analysis to host-to-server traffic because host-to-host traffic is unimportant.
• Run a network traffic analysis to determine which applications are in use and by whom.
• Conduct an inventory of all networking devices that includes model numbers and memory configurations

7. A company that has a traditional telephone system wants to convert to IP telephony. Which two factors should be considered for the design? (Choose two.)
• Digital communications systems have greater noise than analog systems when processing voice traffic.
• Voice-enabled routers or a server must be used for call control and signaling.
• Voice to IP conversions can cause router overhead.
• Power to the phones can be supplied through properly equipped patch panels or switches.
• The cost to combine voice and data VLANs can be a considerable amount.

8. Several web and email servers have recently been installed as part of an enterprise network. The security administrator has been asked to provide a summary of security features that can be implemented to help prevent unauthorized traffic from being sent into or out of sensitive internal networks. Which three features should the security administrator recommend? (Choose three.)
• firewalls
• priority queuing
• access control lists
• intrusion detection systems

• DHCP
• 128-bit WEP

9. The design of an IP telephony system needs to meet the technical requirements to provide a connection to the PSTN as well as provide high-quality voice transmissions using the campus network. Which two elements directly affect the ability of the design to meet these requirements?(Choose two.)
• voice-enabled firewall
• PoE switches and patch panels
• redundant backbone connectivity
• voice-enabled router at the enterprise edge
• separate voice and data VLANs with QoS implemented


10. When implementing VoIP services, which two design considerations should be followed?(Choose two.)
• Confirm that network jitter is minimal.
• Use TCP to reduce delays and dropped packets.
• Establish priority queuing to ensure that large data packets are sent uninterrupted.
• Disable real-time protocols to reduce queuing strategy demands.
• Ensure that packet delays do not exceed 150 ms.

11. What design strategy should be followed when designing a network that uses video on demand?
• implement the appropriate routing protocol to ensure that data segments arrive in order
• implement different QoS queues based on the type of video traffic being distributed
• install servers to store the data in a centrally located server farm
• configure queuing in the core routers to ensure high availability

12. When implementing QoS in traffic queues, what is the first step the designer should take to ensure that traffic is properly prioritized?
• define QoS policies
• define traffic classes
• determine traffic patterns
• identify traffic requirements
• identify networking equipment

13. Which two statements are characteristics of file transfer traffic flows? (Choose two.)
• RTP should be used.
• Traffic is predictable.
• Packets are small in size.
• Transfers are throughput intensive.
• Response-time requirements are low.


14. Which two items can be determined by diagramming internal traffic flow? (Choose two.)
• the type of ISP services needed
• the capabilities of end-user devices
• the areas where network congestion may occur
• the location of VPN servers used to connect teleworkers
• locations where high-bandwidth connections are required

15. Which two traffic types are examples of external traffic flows? (Choose two.)
• A user in the IT department telnets to the core layer router.
• A user in marketing connects to the web server of a competitor.
• A user in the IT department telnets into the access layer switch.
• A user in the services department logs in to a web-based email program.
• A user in accounting connects to an FTP server that is connected to the access layer switch.

16. Which service can be provided by the NetFlow Cisco utility?
• network planning and mapping
• IDS and IPS capabilities
• peak usage times and traffic routing
• network billing and accounting application
• security and user account restrictions
• source and destination UDP port mapping

17. Refer to the exhibit. If ACL 150 identifies only voice traffic from network 192.168.10.0/24 and no other traffic, which queue will voice traffic from other networks use?
• high
• normal
• medium
• default

18. Refer to the exhibit. After configuring QoS, a network administrator issues the command show queueing interface s0/1. What two pieces of information can an administrator learn from the output of this command? (Choose two.)
• queue traffic definitions
• priority list protocol assignments
• type of queuing being implemented
• number of packets placed in each queue

• queuing defaults that have been changed
• queuing has not been applied to this interface

19. An analysis of network protocols reveals that RTP and RTCP are being used. What uses these protocols?
• IDS
• VPN
• WLAN
• firewall
• real-time video

20. A company is considering adding voice and video to the data networks. Which two statements are true if voice and video are added? (Choose two.)
• PoE switches must be purchased.
• More UDP-based traffic flows will be evident.
• Response times will be increased even if QoS is implemented.
• QoS will most likely be implemented to prioritize traffic flows.
• VPNs will most likely be implemented to protect the voice traffic.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the terms on top with its definition on the bottom?
• A=1, B=3, C=2, D=4
• A=2, B=1, C=4, D=3
• A=2, B=4, C=1, D=3
• A=3, B=2, C=4, D=1
• A=4, B=3, C=1, D=2
• A=4, B=2, C=3, D=1

22. A database server is configured to purge all data that is 60 days old. Ten data items that are 60 days old are to be purged. However, there is a failure halfway through the transaction, and the entire transaction is voided. What type of transaction action occurred?
• atomic
• consistent
• durable
• isolated

23. What is the primary goal of QoS?
• classification of traffic
• filtering and queuing voice traffic
• reducing bandwidth requirements
• providing priority service to selected traffic

24. Which technology provides a mechanism for implementing QoS at Layer 2?
• ToS
• CoS
• DSCP
• IP precedence

25. A customer purchases tickets online and pays using a credit card, but the system goes down before the transaction is complete. What transaction type retains a record of this transaction after the system failure so that the customer will still receive the tickets and the credit card account will be debited accordingly?
• atomic
• consistent
• durable
• isolated

26. Refer to the exhibit. The network design documents include requirements to prevent switching loops, to provide link-specific failover, and to provide Layer 3 recovery. Which two protocols would be needed to provide the support? (Choose two.)
• HDLC
• HSRP
• PPP
• RSTP
• VTP

27. network design must minimize latency to support real-time streaming applications. Which two protocols enable control and scalability of the network resources and minimize latency by incorporating QoS mechanisms? (Choose two.)
• RTCP
• HSRP
• RSTP
• RTP
• RPC

28. Which two major differences are associated with IP telephony when compared to traditional telephony that uses a PBX? (Choose two.)
• manages phones centrally
• utilizes centralized call routing
• creates peer-to-peer relationships between phones
• requires a separate infrastructure to support data transfer
• requires significant manual configuration when adding, moving, or changing phones

29. When QoS is implemented in a converged network, which two factors can be controlled to improve performance? (Choose two.)
• link speed
• delay
• packet routing
• jitter
• packet addressing

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 3 Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. It is important to identify the details of network sections and devices that will be affected or involved in a new design. This information is included in which section of the Network Design Requirements Document?
• Project Goal
• Project Scope
• Technical Requirements
• Current State of the Network

2. Which two pieces of information does the network designer need to determine if the Cisco IOS of a router requires an upgrade? (Choose two.)
• amount of NVRAM installed
• model number of the router
• number of interfaces and installed HWICs
• installed Cisco IOS feature set and version
• error statistics for each interface

3. Which three pieces of information need to be considered when selecting the proper Cisco IOS version for an upgrade? (Choose three.)
• processor ID
• interface type
• amount of DRAM
• bootstrap version
• device make and model
• size of system flash memory


4. What are two practices a network technician should follow when installing a new interface card in a router? (Choose two.)
• Be sure the interface card faceplate does not touch the chassis rear panel.
• Do not tighten the captive screws until the router has been powered on and recognizes the card.
• Store the blank faceplate inside the card slot to be used if the card is removed.
• Handle the interface card by the edges to avoid static discharge.
• Push the interface card into place until the edge connector is seated securely


5. The new serial interface card for the router arrives and the network technician reads that it is hotswappable. What does this mean?
• The card cannot be installed while the router is powered on because static discharge could damage the card.
• The card cannot be installed until the router is powered off and completely cooled down.
• The card can be installed while the router is powered on if the router supports this technology.
• The card is a replacement and must be installed in the same slot as the card it is replacing.

6. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the command shown to gain knowledge about a poorly documented network. Which two pieces of information can the network administrator discover from the command output? (Choose two.)
• One connected device has router capability.
• The entire network contains a total of five Cisco devices with CDP enabled.
• None of the directly connected network devices have been configured with an IP address.
• Device EDGE_2811 is connected to port Fast Ethernet 0/0 on device C3750-24_MDF.
• Five Cisco devices with CDP enabled are directly connected to device C3750-24_MDF

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which of the three Cisco IOS images shown will load into RAM?
• The router selects an image depending on the value of the configuration register.
• The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it is the most recent IOS image.
• The router selects the second Cisco IOS image because it is the smallest IOS image.
• The router selects an image depending on the boot system command in the configuration.
• The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it contains the advipservicesk9 image.

8. An administrator wants to download a new Cisco IOS software version to the local router. Which command performs this task?
• copy tftp flash
• copy flash run
• copy start tftp
• copy flash tftp
• copy tftp start

9. Refer to the exhibit. The top of the output shows the Cisco Feature Navigator regarding a Cisco IOS image that the administrator wants to install on a router. Below it is the output from the show version command for that router. Which statement is true regarding the capacity of the router to run this Cisco IOS image?
• There is not enough DRAM and flash.
• There is enough DRAM and flash.
• There is enough DRAM but not enough flash.
• There is enough flash but not enough DRAM.

10. Which two items are objectives of a WLAN design site survey? (Choose two.)
• identify coverage areas
• determine primary AP locations

• determine what AP equipment should be purchased
• determine how many users will access the WLAN
• identify the bottleneck of the LAN infrastructure

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions improve the weaknesses of the topology shown, assuming that each access layer segment is in its own subnet? (Choose two.)
• Implement redundant links to each server by adding additional NICs.
• Implement a reduntant link from all access layer switches to Admin, Dist, and Server Farm.
• Implement a backup firewall with a link to a secondary ISP and implement a redundant link to the DMZ.
• Implement reduntant links from the existing firewall to all access layer switches.
• Implement redundant links from the DMZ to Admin and Dist.

12. A company is beginning to analyze their new Cisco IOS upgrade requirements. What is one of the router components that a network administrator must consider when selecting a new Cisco IOS version?
• processor type
• storage space in NVRAM
• interfaces and modules to be supported
• compatibility of the bootstrap version with the new Cisco IOS software

13. An employee at a company notices that the wireless signal strength indicator on his laptop fluctuates from good to low. The network administrator decides to do a site survey of that area. Which three factors need to be included in the survey? (Choose three.)
• type and model number of the WNIC of the laptop
• number of users in the area
• location of the AP

• list of MAC addresses filtered by the AP
• number of simultaneous applications running on the laptop of the employee
• location of walls and filing cabinets in the office

14. The new network design for AnyCompany must include support of voice and video traffic. Before upgrading, the network designer checks whether the existing devices can support the new requirements. Which three items does the designer need to check? (Choose three.)
• number of routers and switches owned by AnyCompany
• routers that will support extra ASICs and WWICs
• size of DRAM and flash on each device
• routers that will support HWICs and VWICs

• system bootstrap version on each router and switch
• modules supported on the loaded Cisco IOS

15. A new Cisco IOS version has been copied into flash from a TFTP server. When a reload is issued to upgrade the Cisco IOS, the router freezes part of the way through the loading process. What could be the problem?
• There is enough flash but not enough RAM in the router.
• The new HWIC cards have not been installed yet.
• The TFTP server needs to be present during a reload.
• The new Cisco IOS should have been loaded into NVRAM.
• The new bootstrap version is not compatible with the original version on the router.

16. Refer to the exhibit. A network designer has no documentation and is attempting to create a logical diagram of the network using the output from show commands. What can be determined from the output shown?
• The device with the ID of ISP is a router on the Internet.
• The attached switch is a VTP server in the Toronto domain.
• The designer cannot telnet to the attached switch.
• The Cisco router IOS supports enterprise-level voice and video technologies.

17. A production router is reloaded and finishes with a Router> prompt. What three facts can be determined? (Choose three.)
• POST occurred normally.
• The boot process was interrupted.
• There is not enough RAM or flash on this router.
• A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and loaded.
• A configuration file was not located in NVRAM or from a TFTP server.

• The router did not locate the Cisco IOS in flash, so it defaulted to ROM.

18. During a site survey, the network designer noticed that people were accessing the company wireless network from the parking lot. What should be done to stop the wireless signal from radiating out into the parking lot?
• change the channel on the wireless AP
• connect the wireless AP to a firewall
• change the type of antenna attached to the AP
• move the wireless AP to a secure VLAN
• move the wireless AP to a port on a Layer 3 switch

19. A network design project includes a review of the existing network. What is the purpose of this phase of the project?
• eliminate the need for a site survey
• shorten the timeframe of the project
• lower the cost of the project by removing redundant links and devices
• determine if the number of applications used within the company can be reduced
• To determine what existing network devices require upgrades to meet the new

20. Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the Cisco IOS file naming convention, what is represented by the value ipvoicek9 listed in the IOS filename?
• version
• file format
• feature set
• hardware platform

21. Refer to the exhibit. What two items can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)
• R2 is a Cisco 2600 device.
• R2 has 22 MB of RAM installed.
• The version of the IOS is 12.3.
• Over 8 MB of NVRAM is installed.
• A new 36 MB IOS file can be installed on the device.

22. During a wireless site survey, a consultant is determining the hours of peak usage and the estimated number of users in each location. The consultant is currently in what step of the site survey process?
• the defining of customer requirements
• the identification of coverage areas
• the determining of preliminary AP locations
• the measurement of signal strength

23. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is attempting to install a new version of the IOS on R2. Based on the exhibited output, what are two possible reasons that the transfer failed?(Choose two.)
• The administrator did not enable TFTP on R2.
• There is not enough flash available to store the new IOS.
• Connectivity between R2 and the TFTP server was not verified.
• The copy command was incorrectly entered.
• The administrator did not verify that the TFTP server is running.

24. In which section of the Network Design Requirements document would a network consulting team detail names and IP addresses of important networking components and servers, provide network diagrams and topologies, and define strengths and weaknesses of the network?
• network requirements
• project scope
• overall project goal
• state of the network

CCNA Discovery 4 Module 2 Exam Answer Version

1. During an evaluation of the currently installed network, the IT staff performs a gap analysis to determine whether the existing network infrastructure can support the desired new features. At which stage of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach does this activity occur?
• Prepare Phase
• Plan Phase
• Design Phase
• Implement Phase
• Operate Phase
• Optimize Phase

2. Which stage of the Cisco Lifecycle Services strategy is usually completed before an organization issues a Request For Proposal (RFP) or Request For Quotation (RFQ)?
• Prepare Phase
• Plan Phase
• Design Phase
• Implement Phase
• Operate Phase
• Optimize Phase

3. What is the purpose of SNMP?
• to facilitate the exchange of information between devices and the NMS
• to monitor and control managed network devices
• to report user logins to a monitoring station
• to verify traffic throughout the network and keep a log of all activity

4. During an analysis of a customer network, several possible opportunities for network improvement are identified. At which stage of the Cisco Lifecycle Services does this process occur?
• Prepare Phase
• Plan Phase
• Design Phase
• Implement Phase
• Optimize Phase
• Operate Phase

5. What provides the initial data for the Optimize Phase?
• performance monitoring
• business goals
• technical goals
• RFP

6. Which two statements are true regarding the response to an RFQ?(Choose two.)
• The response should be brief.
• it should strictly conform to the formatting requirements specified by the RFQ.
• Only the items that the contracting company will be addressing should be answered.
• The response helps the customer compare pricing with other potential contractors.
• The response is more complicated than a response to a RFP.

7. What are two disadvantages of using a bottom-up approach instead of a top-down approach to network design? (Choose two.)
• It can result in an inappropriate network design.
• A new design cannot be implemented right away.
• It does not take into account the business goals of the company.
• This approach is not commonly practiced and is therefore not as well known.
• It requires tedious and time-consuming meetings with the customer to develop an understanding of the organization.

8. What is a business constraint that may impact the WAN design of a company?
• company policy regarding specific operating systems on LAN devices
• current monitoring protocols implemented on end-user devices
• non-availability of end users during implementation
• company policy requiring the use of specific vendor networking equipment due to partnerships 
9. What is the purpose of preparing a business case?
• to justify the financial investment in implementing the technology change
• to provide an example of a previous job done in the RFP
• to define the technical requirements of the network
• to define timelines and critical milestones

10. What is the purpose of creating a prioritized list of technical requirements?
• defines the project scope
• determines the business profitability
• creates a feasibility report for analysis
• identifies existing and new user groups

11. A network engineer is analyzing the network of a potential client company to identify problems and determine whether a network upgrade or addition is needed. Which role in the sales team is this engineer assuming?
• post-sales field engineer
• pre-sales engineer
• account manager
• network designer

12. Which two statements best describe the responsibilities of an account manager? (Choose two.)
• acts as the primary point of contact between the company and the client
• directs the sales teams and support personnel

• provides technical support to critical clients
• selects the equipment and technologies to be used for the client solution
• acts as the network design lead

13. What is the purpose of system-level acceptance testing?
• To develop an installation plan for the newly designed network
• to train end users and support personnel on the newly installed network
• to check that the newly installed network meets the business goals and design requirements
• to justify the financial investment required to implement the technology change

14. What is a purpose of establishing a network baseline?
• It provides a statistical average for network performance.
• It manages the performance of network devices.
• It creates a point of reference for future network evaluations.
• It checks the security configuration of network devices.

15. When should a network baseline be performed within the stages of the Cisco Lifecycle Services?
• Prepare Phase
• Plan Phase
• Design Phase
• Implement Phase
• Operate Phase

16. What are two benefits of using a top-down approach instead of a bottom-up approach to network design? (Choose two.)
• incorporates organizational requirements • allows for a quick response to a design request
• requires less time up front to create a network design
• clarifies design goals from the perspective of applications and network solutions
• facilitates a design by using devices and technologies that are based on previous experience

17. Which software component is installed on network devices that are managed through SNMP?
• management agents
• management stations
• network management protocol
• Management Information Base (MIB)

18. A network engineer working for a contracting company is informed of a pre-bid meeting with a potential client. What purpose does the network engineer have for attending the pre-bid meeting?
• to submit request for proposal responses
• to discuss proposed installation and monitoring plans
• to perform system-level acceptance tests on the current network
• to clarify project scope and timelines not included in the original request for proposal
• to create a business case outlining reasons for financial investment in a network upgrade

19. A major corporation has decided to hire someone to upgrade their network infrastructure. A network consulting company wants the job. What document must the network consulting company obtain to learn about the business goals, the project scope, the requirements for the new network and the expected deliverables?
• Business Case
• Project Plan
• Request for Proposal
• Request for Comments

20. A corporation (client) wants a network upgrade and is putting out a request for services to various network consulting companies (contractors). A RFQ is required. Which statement is true concerning the RFQ?
• sent from the contractors to the client in response to a RFP
• sent from the client to the contractors along with the RFP to provide more specific technical details
• sent from the client to the contractors in place of a RFP when the technical specifications of a project are known
• sent from the contractors to the client outlining reasons for financial investments for the network upgrade

21. Which stage of the Cisco Lifecycle Services involves proactive management to identify and resolve issues before the organization is affected?
• Prepare Phase
• Plan Phase
• Design Phase
• Implement Phase
• Operate Phase
• Optimize Phase

22. Why is it important to prioritize business goals when developing network design?
• to ensure that the least expensive technologies are implemented first
• to simplify the configuration, administration, and monitoring of the newly installed network
• to anticipate the effects of changes and growth of the business
• to adhere to the best opportunities to contribute to the success of the business

23. Which two items help identify business goals and priorities before a new network project starts? (Choose two.)
• installation
• motivation
• profitability

• trustworthiness
• customer satisfaction

24. A network engineer working for ABC company is writing a response to an RFP for a network upgrade and must create an executive summary. Which statement describes the basic components of an executive summary?
• quick overview of the problem, the recommended solution, and the justification for ABC company doing the job
• detailed description of the solution, including but not limited to, timelines, turnover schedule, warranty information, and emergency recovery information
• detailed description of costs including, the cost of software and hardware components, licensing requirements, labor cost, and other applicable fees
• multiple page document containing additional information such as detailed lists of equipment required, diagrams, company background information, and insurance coverage

25. In a network management architecture, which statement best describes a management agent?
• communication protocol used between a management station and managed device
• standardized database that a device keeps about itself concerning network performance parameters
• host with the management application loaded that is used by the administrator to monitor and configure network devices
• software running on a managed device to collect network information and allow that device to be managed by a management station

Jumat, 10 Desember 2010

Tugas CCNA 3L ab 3.4.1 Creating VLANs and Assigning Ports


Objectives
•  Configure three VLANs on a switch.
• Verify connectivity.
Background / Preparation
This lab focuses on the basic VLAN configuration of the Cisco 2960 switch (or similar) using Cisco IOS commands. The information in this lab applies to other switches; however, command syntax may vary. Depending upon the switch model, the interface designations may differ. For example, modular switches have multiple slots; therefore, the Fast Ethernet ports may be Fast Ethernet 0/1 or Fast Ethernet 1/1, depending on the slot and port.
The following resources are required:
•  One Cisco 2960 switch or other comparable switch
•  Three Windows-based PCs with a terminal emulation program
•  One RJ-45-to-DB-9 connector console cable to configure the switch
•  Three straight-through Ethernet cables to connect from the PCs to Switch 1
NOTE: Make sure that the switch has been erased and has no startup configurations. Instructions for erasing the switch are provided in the Lab Manual, located on Academy Connection in the Tools section.
Step 1: Connect the equipment
a.  Connect PC1 to the switch with a console cable.
b.  Connect PC1 to switch port Fast Ethernet 0/4 with a straight-through Ethernet cable.
c.  Connect PC2 to switch port Fast Ethernet 0/5 with a straight-through Ethernet cable.
d.  Connect PC3 to switch port Fast Ethernet 0/7 with a straight-through Ethernet cable.
Step 2: Perform basic PC configuration
Use this table to configure addressing on the PCs.
Step 3: Configure Switch 1
a.  Configure Switch 1 with a hostname and console, Telnet, and privileged passwords.
b.  Configure Switch 1 with the VLAN 1 IP address of 172.16.1.2/24.
Switch1(config)#interface vlan1
Switch1(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.2 255.255.255.0
Switch1(config-if)#no shutdown
Switch1(config-if)#exit
c.  Create VLAN 10, named Faculty, and VLAN 20, named Students.
Switch1(config)#vlan 10
Switch1(config-vlan)#name Faculty
Switch1(config-v exit  lan)#
Switch1(config)#vlan 20
Switch1(config-vlan)#name Students
Switch1(config-vlan)#exit
d.  Configure Switch 1 with the default gateway address of 172.16.1.1.
Switch1(config)#ip default-gateway 172.16.1.1
e.  Configure Switch 1 to place interfaces Fa0/5 and Fa0/6 in VLAN 10.
Switch1(config)#interface Fa0/5
Switch1(config-if)#switchport mode access
Switch1(config-if)#switchport access vlan 10
Switch1(config-if)#interface Fa0/6
Switch1(config-if)#switchport mode access
Switch1(config-if)#switchport access vlan 10
Switch1(config-if)#exit
f.  Configure Switch 1 to place interfaces Fa0/7 and Fa0/8 in VLAN 20.
Switch1(config)#interface Fa0/7
Switch1(config-if)#switchport mode access
Switch1(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
Switch1(config-if)#interface Fa0/8
Switch1(config-if)#switchport mode access
Switch1(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
Switch1(config-if)#end
Switch1#
g.  Save the configuration.
Switch1#copy running-config startup-config
h.  By default, there is only a single VLAN for all ports. You cannot rename or delete VLAN 1. Therefore, no further configuration is necessary to assign the rest of the ports to VLAN 1. To prove this, issue the command show vlan brief.
i. Are all other switch ports in VLAN 1? Jawaban = ya semua ports berada pada VLAN 1
j. Which switch ports are in VLAN 10? Jawaban = Fa0/5 – Fa0/6
k. Which switch ports are in VLAN 20? Jawaban = Fa0/7 – Fa0/8
l. Issue the command show vlan.  What difference is noticed between the two commandsshow vlan brief and show vlan? Jawaban = perbedaan antara command show vlan brief dan show vlan ialah pada show vlan brief hanya sedikit sekali informasi yagn diberikan, jika pada show vlan tiap – tiap port pada switch dirincinya.
Step 4: Verify connectivity
a.  Ping from each PC to Switch1 address of 172.16.1.2.
Are PC1 pings successful? Ya , berhasil
Are PC2 pings successful? Ya, berhasil
Are PC3 pings successful?ya, berhasil 
b.  Ping from PC1 to PC2 and PC3.
Can PC1 ping PC2? Tidak  berhasil 
Can PC1 ping PC3? Tidak berhasil.
Step 5: Reflection
a. Why can PC1 ping Switch1 when PC2 and PC3 cannot? Jawaban = karena PC1 memiliki alamat IP address 172.16.1.1 subnet bitnya langsung termasuk yang dipakai sebagai gateway. Sedangkan PC2 dan PC3 tidak.
b. The PCs cannot ping each other. Why? Jawaban = karena masing masing PC berada pada kelas yang berbeda, yaitu PC1 =172.16.1.1 . Pc2= 176.16.10.1 sedangkan PC3 = 172.16.30.

Tugas CCNA 3 Lab 3.2.4 Verifying STP with Show Commands


Step 1: Cable the network
What is the advantage of providing redundant links in a network like this one?
Step 2: Configure the switches
Step 3: Configure the hosts
Step 4: Verify connectivity
To verify that the network is set up successfully, ping from Host 1 to Host 2. Was the ping successful?
Step 5: Examine interface VLAN 1 information
a. On SwitchA, enter the command show interface vlan1 at the privileged EXEC mode prompt. What is the MAC address of SwitchA?
b. On SwitchB, enter the command show interface vlan1 at the privileged EXEC mode prompt. What is the MAC address of SwitchB? Which switch should be the root of the spanning tree for this network?
Step 6: Determine the roles of ports participating in the spanning tree on each switch
On SwitchB, enter the command show spanning-tree at the privileged EXEC mode prompt. Which switch is the root bridge? The spanning tree is using three ports on each switch. Complete this chart indicating the port state and role for each port.
Step 7: Create a change in the network topology
a.       Remove the crossover cable from the forwarding port on the non-root bridge.
b.      Wait a few seconds, and then enter the show spanning-tree command again on the non-root bridge. What changes do you see in the spanning tree?
c.       Check the spanning tree on the root bridge.
What changes have occurred there?
d.      Continue to check the spanning tree on both switches until a new tree has been calculated and all ports are either forwarding or blocking. How long does it take for this to happen?
e.       Replace the cable that was removed in Step 7a.
f.       Wait again until both switches have recalculated their tables. How much time has passed since you first removed the crossover cable?
g. What effect did these topology changes have on network uptime?
Step 8: Examine the spanning tree on each switch
a.       On each switch, enter the command show spanning-tree detail.
b.      Examine the information for port Fa0/1. The output shows the interface, role, and state for each switch. It also provides details about port activity and characteristics.
How might the following information help you to verify the status of the network and troubleshoot network problems?
1)      Number of transitions to forwarding state:
2)      Number of BPDUs that have been sent and received:
c.       On each switch, enter the following commands. Determine the type of information that each command provides: show spanning-tree bridge jawab: show spanning-tree summary
Step 9: Reflection
Your networking team is deciding whether to disable Spanning Tree Protocol on the switches in your corporate network. Explain how you would feel about this decision. What are the advantages and disadvantages? How would this decision affect your network design?  

Tugas CCNA 3 Lab 3.2.3 Building a Switched Network with Redundant Links


Step 1: Cable the network
a.       Connect Host 1 to Switch 1 Fast Ethernet port Fa0/7, using a straight-through Ethernet cable.
b.      Connect Host 2 to Switch 2 Fast Ethernet port Fa0/8, using a straight-through Ethernet cable.
c.       Connect Switch 1 Fast Ethernet port Fa0/1 to Switch 2 Fast Ethernet port Fa0/1, using a crossover Ethernet cable.
d.      Create a redundant link between the switches by connecting Switch 1 Fast Ethernet port Fa0/4 to Switch 2 Fast Ethernet port Fa0/4, using a crossover Ethernet cable. What typically undesirable traffic pattern have you created by using the two crossover cables between the two switches?
Predict: What do you think the switches will do to keep this from becoming a problem?
Step 2: Configure the switches
Step 3: Configure the hosts
a.       Configure each host to use an IP address in the same network as the switches.
b.      Configure each host to use the same subnet mask as the switches. Why is no default gateway specified for this network?
Step 4: Verify connectivity
a.       To verify that the network is set up successfully, ping from Host 1 to Host 2. Was the ping successful?
b.      If the ping is not successful, verify the connections and configurations again. Check to ensure that all cables are correct and that connections are seated. If the ping is not successful, what utility could you use to determine where the connection is failing?
Step 5: Examine interface VLAN 1 information
a.       From the terminal emulation session on either switch, enter the command show interface vlan1 ? at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
SwitchA#show interface vlan1 ?
List some of the options that are available
b.      On SwitchA, enter the command show interface vlan1 at the privileged EXEC mode prompt. SwitchA#show interface vlan1
What is the MAC address of the switch?
What other term for MAC address is used?
c.       On SwitchB, enter the command show interface vlan1 at the privileged EXEC mode prompt. What is the MAC address of the switch?
Which switch should be the root of the spanning tree for this network?
Step 6: Examine the spanning-tree tables on each switch
a.       On SwitchA, enter the command show spanning-tree at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
b.      On SwitchB, enter the command show spanning-tree at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
c.       Examine the outputs and answer the following questions:
Which switch is the root bridge?
What is the priority of the root bridge?
What is the bridge ID of the root bridge?
Which ports are forwarding on the root bridge?
Which ports are blocking on the root bridge?
What is the priority of the non-root bridge?
What is the bridge ID of the non-root bridge?
Which ports are forwarding on the non-root bridge?
Which ports are blocking on the non-root bridge?
d.      Examine the link lights on both switches.
Can you tell which port is in blocking state?
Why is there no change in the link lights?
Step 7: Reassign the root bridge
What would you do if you wanted a different switch to be the root bridge for this network?
Why might you want to do this?
For the purposes of this lab, assume that the switch that is currently the root bridge is undesirable. The example assumes that SwitchB is preferred as the root switch. To “force” SwitchB to become the new root bridge, you need to configure a new priority for it.
a.        Go to the console and enter configuration mode on SwitchB.
b.      Determine the options that can be configured for the Spanning Tree Protocol by issuing this command: SwitchB(config)#spanning-tree ?
c.       List the options that are available: _____________________
d.      Set the priority of the switch to 4096.
SwitchB(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
SwitchB(config)#exit
Step 8: Look at the spanning-tree table
a.       On SwitchA, enter show spanning-tree at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
b.      On SwitchB, enter show spanning-tree at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
c.       Examine the outputs and answer the following questions:
Which switch is the root bridge?
What is the priority of the root bridge?
What is the bridge ID of the root bridge?
Which ports are forwarding on the root bridge?
Which ports are blocking on the root bridge?
What is the priority of the non-root bridge?
What is the bridge ID of the non-root bridge?
Which ports are forwarding on the non-root bridge?
Which ports are blocking on the non-root bridge?
Step 9: Verify the running configuration file on the root bridge
a.       On the switch that was changed to be the root bridge, enter the show running-configcommand at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
b.      Locate the spanning-tree priority information for this switch.
c.       How can you tell from the information given that this switch is the root bridge?
Step 10: Reflection
Suppose that you are adding new switches to a company’s network. Why should you plan the physical design carefully? Why should you be prepared to make adjustments to factory default settings?